March 30, 1922 (14th Parliament, 1st Session)


William Irvine



I would ask the Prime
Minister this question: Have there not
been statements made by the two parties in this difficulty? Has not the corporation itself made the very definite statement that it will refuse to pay any more than so much wages? In that case why should not the Government consider that just as much sabotage as it does the contention of the men? To put my question more clearly: If it is sabotage for the men to say "We will give so much work for so much money, is it not sabotage for the company to say "We will give so much money for so much work"? What is the difference?

Topic:   SO, 1922
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